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Aristotle Vs Kant


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Aristotle's Ordinary versus Kant's Revisionist Definition of Virtue as Habit
L. Hughes Cox
Centenary College of Louisiana
lcox@beta.centenary.edu

ABSTRACT: In what follows I examine the following question: does it make a difference in moral psychology whether one adopts Aristotle's ordinary or Kant's revisionist definition of virtue as habit? Points of commensurability and critical comparison are provided by Kant's attempt to refute Aristotle's definition of virtue as a mean and by the moral problems of ignorance (I don't know what I ought to do) and weakness (I don't do what I know I ought to do). These two problems are essential topics for moral psychology. I show two things. First, Kant's definition is revisionist because he excludes from moral habit-formation what Aristotle includes, that is, (i) practice in prudential calculation of a mean, and (ii) habit-formation by repetition. This follows from Kant's insistence that an act is virtuous only if the moral agent is......

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Approximate Word Count: 3823
Approximate Pages: 15 (260 words per double-spaced page)

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